OAU Post UTME Mock Test BCP 1

1. Which quantity has dimensions [M L² T⁻³]?

2. A car accelerates at 4 m/s² from rest. Distance in 5th second?

3. Vectors P (8 units) and Q (5 units) at 60° have resultant:

4. Which quantity has dimensions [M⁻¹ L⁻² T⁴ I²]?

5. A butterfly’s displacement S = ¼t³ + ½t² – 12t + 5. When is it momentarily at rest?

6. Which pair has identical dimensions?

7. A 0.6m pendulum has period 1.5s. What’s the period of a 0.4m pendulum?

8. A 30° inclined plane with 60% efficiency requires what force to push 120N load up?

9. A car starts with velocity 2 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 6 m/s² for 2 seconds centered at t=5s. Distance covered during this interval?

10. An object weighed at different Earth locations shows:

11. What is the wavelength of light emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom transitions from n=4 to n=2? (R=1.097×10⁷ m⁻¹)

12. Correct order of decreasing radius for S²⁻, Cl⁻, K⁺, Ca²⁺:

13. How did Thomson’s e⁻ discovery contradict Dalton?

14. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is/are permissible of an electron in an atom.

I. n= 1 l=1 ml=0 ms=±½
II. n=3 l=1 ml= -2 ms=±½
III. n=2 l=1 ml=0 ms=±½
IV. n=2 l=0 ml=0 ms=+½

15. Oil drop experiment, Alpha scattering experiment, Cathode ray experiment were respectively conducted by

I. Ernest Rutherford
II. J.J Thomson
III. Niel Bohr
IV. R.A Millikan
V. James Chadwick

16. Incorrect statement about chemical bonds:

17. Which of the following statements correctly describe complex electron configurations, quantum number constraints, and periodic trends explained by quantum mechanics?

I. The first occurrence of a g orbital (l = 4) would theoretically appear when n = 5.
II. The magnetic quantum number determines the number of electrons that can occupy a given orbital.
III. The difference in energy between 4s and 3d orbitals arises due to electron penetration and shielding effects explained by quantum number-dependent radial distributions.
IV. In multi-electron atoms, orbitals with the same n but different l values are degenerate (have the same energy).
V. The spin quantum number contributes directly to magnetic properties, such as paramagnetism and ferromagnetism.

18. Which of the following factors contribute to the low electronegativity of cesium compared to other elements?

i. Its large atomic radius significantly reduces nuclear attraction for bonding electrons.
ii. Cesium has a low ionisation energy which correlates with low electronegativity.
iii. The single valence electron in cesium is poorly shielded from the nucleus.
iv. Cesium has a high electron affinity which compensates for its low nuclear attraction.
v. Electron shielding from inner shells greatly diminishes effective nuclear charge.

19. Which of the following statements correctly explain(s) why the electron affinity of phosphorus is less negative than that of sulfur?

i. Phosphorus has a half-filled p-orbital which is relatively stable.
ii. Additional electron in phosphorus would cause electron pairing, increasing electron-electron repulsion.
iii. Sulfur’s larger atomic radius reduces the repulsion experienced by the incoming electron.
iv. Phosphorus has a lower nuclear charge compared to sulfur.
v. The energy released upon adding an electron to phosphorus is offset by the loss of half-shell stability.

20. Which electronic transition in atomic hydrogen emits visible light?

21. Complete the series: 2, 18, 192, ____, 38,880

22. Flower : Bouquet :: ______

23. What is the next letter in the sequence: a, i, b, e, m, f, i, n, j, ______

24. Nanny : Kids :: Sow : ______

25. Odd one out:

26. Janitor : Building :: ______ : Church building

27. ______ specializes in caricature.

28. To avoid the spread of the disease, travelers are to quarantine for 14 days. This implies they have to:

29. In COVID-19 parlance, SARS translates to:

30. Relativity theory is associated with ______.

31. Pleurodont dentition is a type of:

32. Dorsal Suprapharyngeal Ganglia and ventral nerve cords are characteristic of:

33. When organisms compete for a resource, it is called:

34. What percentage of solar energy is absorbed in the atmosphere?

35. One of the following is not true of Fungi:

36. The simplest land plants are:

37. Which of the following is an example of Mosses?

38. Which of the following has cones?

39. Group of fungi that converts only a part of the mycelia body to reproductive units are called:

40. The most important molecule that distinguishes living things from non-living things is?