OAU ODL BNSC Entrance Exam Mock Test 2

Welcome to OAU ODL BNSC Entrance Exam Mock Test 2, curated from various interesting topics in Nursing and Midwifery.

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This practice test has 50 questions for 20 minutes.

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INSTRUCTIONS!

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1 / 50

1. Which Nigerian state launched Africa’s first mobile cervical cancer screening program in 2024?

A. Kaduna

B. Rivers

C. Lagos

D. Ekiti

2 / 50

2. What major policy change did NAFDAC announce in 2024 regarding drug labeling?

A. Mandatory local language translations

B. Ban on imported syrups

C. Bold warning labels on paracetamol

D. QR codes for drug authentication

3 / 50

3. Which disease was declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) by WHO in 2024?

A. Marburg virus

B. Diphtheria

C. Oropouche fever

D. Lassa fever

4 / 50

4. Which cells produce antibodies?

A. erythrocytes

B. B-lymphocytes

C. neutrophils

D. platelets

5 / 50

5. The carotid artery supplies blood to the:

A. lungs

B. liver

C. heart

D. brain

6 / 50

6. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature and hunger?

A. hypothalamus

B. thalamus

C. medulla oblongata

D. cerebellum

7 / 50

7. A nurse delegates vital signs to a UAP. Who is accountable?

A. both nurse and UAP

B. nurse only

C. physician

D. UAP only

8 / 50

8. Which principle of ethics protects patient confidentiality?

A. veracity

B. fidelity

C. justice

D. autonomy

9 / 50

9. The FIRST step when a patient falls is:

A. notify the physician

B. assess the patient

C. move them to a bed

D. document the incident

10 / 50

10. The most common early sign of hypokalemia is:

A. hypertension

B. seizures

C. muscle weakness

D. bradycardia

11 / 50

11. A patient with myocardial infarction should receive aspirin for its:

A. antipyretic effect

B. analgesic effect

C. anti-inflammatory effect

D. antiplatelet effect

12 / 50

12. The “4 Ts” of postpartum hemorrhage include all EXCEPT:

A. thrombin (coagulopathy)

B. trauma (lacerations)

C. tone (uterine atony)

D. temperature (fever)

13 / 50

13. A newborn with central cyanosis 30 minutes after delivery requires:

A. routine suctioning

B. glucose water feeding

C. immediate kangaroo care

D. supplemental oxygen

14 / 50

14. A newborn with grunting, nasal flaring, and retractions has:

A. normal transitional signs

B. respiratory distress syndrome

C. meconium aspiration

D. sepsis

15 / 50

15. The “three delays model” addresses maternal mortality related to:

A. infection, hemorrhage, hypertension

B. prenatal visits, nutrition, hygiene

C. family planning, education, income

D. decision to seek care, reaching facility, receiving care

16 / 50

16. A pregnant woman with Rh-negative blood needs RhoGAM at:

A. 28 weeks & post-delivery if baby is Rh+

B. every trimester

C. 12 weeks & 20 weeks

D. only after delivery

17 / 50

17. Which vaccine is given at birth in Nigeria?

A. DPT

B. polio

C. hepatitis B

D. BCG

18 / 50

18. A woman 6 weeks postpartum with fever and uterine tenderness likely has:

A. mastitis

B. thrombophlebitis

C. endometritis

D. UTI

19 / 50

19. The most effective method to prevent mother-to-child HIV transmission is:

A. antiretroviral therapy (ART)

B. vitamin A supplements

C. cesarean delivery

D. exclusive breastfeeding

20 / 50

20. Which electrolyte imbalance causes peaked T waves on ECG?

A. hyperkalemia

B. hyponatremia

C. hypokalemia

D. hypocalcemia

21 / 50

21. The earliest sign of increased ICP is:

A. projectile vomiting

B. decreased LOC

C. Cushing's triad

D. pupil dilation

22 / 50

22. For a patient with chest tube drainage, sudden cessation of bubbling indicates:

A. pneumothorax resolution

B. equipment malfunction

C. tube blockage

D. normal lung re-expansion

23 / 50

23. The most reliable sign of internal bleeding in trauma is:

A. tachycardia

B. pallor

C. hypotension

D. restlessness

24 / 50

24. A diabetic patient with gangrenous toe ulcer should be prioritized for:

A. blood glucose monitoring

B. IV antibiotic therapy

C. hyperbaric oxygen therapy

D. below-knee amputation

25 / 50

25. A baby born at 32 weeks gestation is at highest risk for:

A. jaundice

B. cleft palate

C. hypothyroidism

D. respiratory distress

26 / 50

26. Which vaccine is safe in pregnancy?

A. varicella

B. MMR

C. HPV

D. Tdap

27 / 50

27. A pregnant woman at 10 weeks reports nausea. The best advice is:

A. "lie flat after eating"

B. "eat dry crackers before rising"

C. "drink fluids only at meals"

D. "avoid all fatty foods"

28 / 50

28. The most effective method to prevent postpartum hemorrhage is:

A. iron supplements

B. early ambulation

C. oxytocin after delivery

D. uterine massage

29 / 50

29. A newborn with jitteriness and high-pitched cry likely has:

A. normal reflexes

B. hypoglycemia

C. cerebral palsy

D. sepsis

30 / 50

30. The priority intervention for a burn patient with singed nasal hairs is:

A. secure airway

B. apply silver sulfadiazine

C. administer IV fluids

D. assess pain level

31 / 50

31. Which finding is most critical in a post-op abdominal surgery patient?

A. serosanguinous drainage

B. 100 mL/hr urine output

C. absent bowel sounds

D. pain score of 6/10

32 / 50

32. The main purpose of DOTs in TB treatment is to:

A. prevent drug resistance

B. both B and C

C. ensure adherence

D. reduce cost

33 / 50

33. Vitamin A supplementation reduces mortality from:

A. malaria

B. measles

C. typhoid

D. tuberculosis

34 / 50

34. The “S” in WHO’s “SAFE” strategy for trachoma stands for:

A. surgery

B. sanitation

C. screening

D. supplementation

35 / 50

35. A community with cholera cases should prioritize:

A. water purification

B. vaccination campaigns

C. food supplementation

D. bed net distribution

36 / 50

36. In Nigeria, the NPHCDA oversees:

A. tertiary hospitals

B. private clinics

C. pharmaceutical companies

D. primary health centers

37 / 50

37. The most effective way to prevent neonatal tetanus is:

A. early breastfeeding

B. clean cord care

C. maternal vaccination

D. antibiotic prophylaxis

38 / 50

38. A community nurse measuring arm circumference is assessing:

A. anemia

B. malaria severity

C. dehydration

D. malnutrition

39 / 50

39. The “three delays model” applies to:

A. TB treatment

B. HIV testing

C. maternal mortality

D. childhood immunization

40 / 50

40. Community-directed treatment is most effective for:

A. hypertension

B. lymphatic filariasis

C. tuberculosis

D. diabetes

41 / 50

41. The leading cause of child mortality in Nigeria is:

A. measles

B. diarrheal diseases

C. malaria

D. HIV/AIDS

42 / 50

42. The first-line treatment for anaphylaxis is:

A. IM epinephrine

B. IV diphenhydramine

C. oral prednisone

D. nebulized albuterol

43 / 50

43. Which drug class causes “red man syndrome” if infused too quickly?

A. penicillins

B. aminoglycosides

C. vancomycin

D. cephalosporins

44 / 50

44. A patient taking warfarin should limit intake of:

A. citrus fruits

B. whole grains

C. green leafy vegetables

D. dairy products

45 / 50

45. Which vaccination is given intramuscularly in the deltoid?

A. rotavirus

B. BCG

C. oral polio

D. hepatitis B

46 / 50

46. The primary side effect of ACE inhibitors is:

A. tinnitus

B. hypokalemia

C. dry cough

D. hypoglycemia

47 / 50

47. Which drug is contraindicated in glaucoma?

A. omeprazole

B. acetaminophen

C. diphenhydramine

D. warfarin

48 / 50

48. A patient taking lithium should maintain adequate intake of:

A. potassium

B. sodium

C. calcium

D. magnesium

49 / 50

49. Which antibiotic causes photosensitivity?

A. doxycycline

B. metronidazole

C. amoxicillin

D. ciprofloxacin

50 / 50

50. The antidote for heparin overdose is:

A. vitamin K

B. protamine sulfate

C. naloxone

D. flumazenil

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