OAU ODL BNSC Entrance Exam Mock Test

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OAU ODL BNSC Entrance Exam Mock Test

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OAU ODL BNSC Entrance Exam Mock Test

Welcome to OAU ODL BNSC Entrance Exam Mock Test, curated from various interesting topics in Nursing and Midwifery.

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This test has 100 questions for 50 minutes.

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INSTRUCTIONS!

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1 / 100

1. In Nigeria, the “SIP” strategy for malaria prevention in pregnancy stands for:

2 / 100

2. Which vitamin is routinely administered to all newborns to prevent bleeding disorders?

3 / 100

3. A postpartum woman complains of severe perineal pain 3 days after delivery. On examination, there is edema and foul-smelling discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

4 / 100

4. The “kangaroo mother care” technique is primarily used for:

5 / 100

5. A pregnant woman at 12 weeks gestation is diagnosed with syphilis. The most appropriate treatment is:

6 / 100

6. The “PICO” framework stands for:

7 / 100

7. Which research ethic requires participants to be fully informed about a study?

8 / 100

8. A study measuring nurses’ knowledge before and after a training program uses which design?

9 / 100

9. The variable that is manipulated in an experimental study is called:

10 / 100

10. Which sampling method ensures equal representation of subgroups?

11 / 100

11. Which innovation has Nigeria pioneered in healthcare delivery?

12 / 100

12. The WHO’s “End TB Strategy” targets elimination by:

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13. Nigeria’s current Minister of Health is:

14 / 100

14. The “3 delays model” in maternal health refers to:

15 / 100

15. Which Nigerian hospital was first accredited for open-heart surgery?

16 / 100

16. The first African country to manufacture COVID-19 vaccines was:

17 / 100

17. Nigeria’s NHIS was established in what year?

18 / 100

18. Which global health organization declared monkeypox a PHEIC in 2022?

19 / 100

19. The “Save One Million Lives” initiative focuses on:

20 / 100

20. As of 2024, which Nigerian state has the highest maternal mortality rate?

21 / 100

21. The causative agent of cholera produces:

22 / 100

22. Which laboratory finding indicates bacterial infection?

23 / 100

23. The primary pathological change in COPD is:

24 / 100

24. Which virus causes vesicular rash in a dermatomal pattern?

25 / 100

25. A patient with “strawberry tongue” likely has:

26 / 100

26. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction causes anaphylaxis?

27 / 100

27. The most common cause of urinary tract infections is:

28 / 100

28. Which condition is characterized by caseating granulomas?

29 / 100

29. A patient with rust-colored sputum likely has:

30 / 100

30. Which microorganism causes malaria?

31 / 100

31. When delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), the nurse must:

32 / 100

32. The most effective way to verify nasogastric tube placement is:

33 / 100

33. A nurse documenting “oriented x3” indicates the patient knows:

34 / 100

34. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses:

35 / 100

35. Which technique is essential when performing sterile dressing changes?

36 / 100

36. The primary purpose of informed consent is to:

37 / 100

37. A nurse refusing to follow an unsafe physician order is demonstrating:

38 / 100

38. Which vital sign is typically measured last during an assessment?

39 / 100

39. The most appropriate position for a patient with dyspnea is:

40 / 100

40. When communicating with an anxious patient, the nurse should:

41 / 100

41. The primary purpose of a nursing care plan is to:

42 / 100

42. A pressure ulcer at Stage III involves damage to:

43 / 100

43. The “rights” of medication administration include all EXCEPT:

44 / 100

44. Which temperature route is considered most accurate?

45 / 100

45. The normal adult respiratory rate is:

46 / 100

46. A nurse documenting “Patient states ‘I feel dizzy when standing up'” is recording:

47 / 100

47. The most effective way to prevent hospital-acquired infections is:

48 / 100

48. When lifting a patient, nurses should primarily use:

49 / 100

49. Which principle of ethics refers to “doing no harm”?

50 / 100

50. The first step in the nursing process is:

51 / 100

51. Phenytoin is associated with:

52 / 100

52. Which drug is used to treat anaphylaxis?

53 / 100

53. A patient taking furosemide should be advised to consume:

54 / 100

54. Which vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine?

55 / 100

55. The primary side effect of metformin is:

56 / 100

56. Which drug requires regular INR monitoring?

57 / 100

57. A patient on gentamicin should be monitored for:

58 / 100

58. Which class of drugs is first-line for uncomplicated hypertension?

59 / 100

59. The antidote for opioid overdose is:

60 / 100

60. Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?

61 / 100

61. A nurse advocating for pit latrines is promoting:

62 / 100

62. Primary Health Care (PHC) does NOT include:

63 / 100

63. Community malnutrition screening uses which tool?

64 / 100

64. A nurse educating mothers about ORS use is addressing:

65 / 100

65. Which group is most vulnerable to malaria in endemic areas?

66 / 100

66. The “Cold Chain” system is crucial for:

67 / 100

67. Which disease is transmitted through contaminated water?

68 / 100

68. A community nurse conducting a house-to-house survey is performing:

69 / 100

69. Which immunization is given at birth in Nigeria?

70 / 100

70. The primary goal of community health nursing is:

71 / 100

71. The primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage is:

72 / 100

72. Which contraceptive method also protects against STIs?

73 / 100

73. A baby born at 36 weeks gestation is classified as:

74 / 100

74. A mother asks about the best way to prevent neonatal tetanus. The nurse advises:

75 / 100

75. In a normal menstrual cycle, ovulation typically occurs on day:

76 / 100

76. The recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding is:

77 / 100

77. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg, +2 proteinuria, and edema. This suggests:

78 / 100

78. Which hormone is responsible for milk production?

79 / 100

79. A newborn with a heart rate of 90 bpm, weak cry, and some flexion of extremities would receive an Apgar score of:

80 / 100

80. The first stage of labor ends with:

81 / 100

81. A patient with a peptic ulcer reports black, tarry stools. This indicates:

82 / 100

82. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with muscle cramps, weakness, and ECG changes (e.g., flattened T waves)?

83 / 100

83. A post-operative patient should be monitored for atelectasis. Which intervention helps prevent it?

84 / 100

84. Which of the following is a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

85 / 100

85. A patient with type 2 diabetes is at risk for which complication if blood sugar is poorly controlled?

86 / 100

86. The process of breathing in is called?

87 / 100

87. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature?

88 / 100

88. The normal pH of human blood is approximately?

89 / 100

89. Which organ produces bile for fat digestion?

90 / 100

90. The mitral valve is located between which two heart chambers?

91 / 100

91. Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight?

92 / 100

92. The process by which blood clots is called?

93 / 100

93. Which part of the neuron transmits signals away from the cell body?

94 / 100

94. The thyroid gland secretes which hormone?

95 / 100

95. Which muscle type is involuntary and found in the walls of organs?

96 / 100

96. The smallest bone in the human body is found in the?

97 / 100

97. Which part of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?

98 / 100

98. The gas exchange in the lungs occurs in the?

99 / 100

99. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

100 / 100

100. The hormone insulin is produced by which organ?

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