Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

General Quizzes

Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

/200
7

Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

Please enter with a valid email address, and try using fullscreen mode when taking the test. Answers show immediately after you select an option.

This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

Enjoy!

Let’s get to know you first

1 / 200

1. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

2 / 200

2. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

3 / 200

3. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

4 / 200

4. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

5 / 200

5. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

6 / 200

6. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

7 / 200

7. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

8 / 200

8. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

9 / 200

9. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

10 / 200

10. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

11 / 200

11. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

12 / 200

12. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

13 / 200

13. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

14 / 200

14. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

15 / 200

15. Flat nipples are best managed by:

16 / 200

16. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

17 / 200

17. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

18 / 200

18. A symptom of IUFD includes:

19 / 200

19. A typical post-mature baby may show:

20 / 200

20. The arcuate line separates the:

21 / 200

21. Congenital TB can result if:

22 / 200

22. Contraception is best defined as:

23 / 200

23. Nonoxynol-9 is:

24 / 200

24. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

25 / 200

25. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

26 / 200

26. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

27 / 200

27. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

28 / 200

28. Mirena releases:

29 / 200

29. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

30 / 200

30. Crowning occurs when:

31 / 200

31. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

32 / 200

32. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

33 / 200

33. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

34 / 200

34. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

35 / 200

35. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

36 / 200

36. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

37 / 200

37. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

38 / 200

38. Noristerat is given every:

39 / 200

39. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

40 / 200

40. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

41 / 200

41. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

42 / 200

42. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

43 / 200

43. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

44 / 200

44. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

45 / 200

45. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

46 / 200

46. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

47 / 200

47. Restitution is best described as:

48 / 200

48. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

49 / 200

49. What indicates successful OP rotation?

50 / 200

50. What is the presenting part in vertex presentation?

51 / 200

51. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

52 / 200

52. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

53 / 200

53. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

54 / 200

54. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

55 / 200

55. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

56 / 200

56. Which of the following is a malposition?

57 / 200

57. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

58 / 200

58. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

59 / 200

59. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

60 / 200

60. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

61 / 200

61. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

62 / 200

62. Depo-Provera is administered:

63 / 200

63. The most common malposition during labor is:

64 / 200

64. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

65 / 200

65. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

66 / 200

66. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

67 / 200

67. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

68 / 200

68. Implantation bleeding is due to:

69 / 200

69. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

70 / 200

70. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

71 / 200

71. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

72 / 200

72. Implanon is a:

73 / 200

73. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

74 / 200

74. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

75 / 200

75. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

76 / 200

76. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

77 / 200

77. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

78 / 200

78. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

79 / 200

79. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

80 / 200

80. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

81 / 200

81. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

82 / 200

82. A transverse lie is categorized under:

83 / 200

83. Yuzpe method involves:

84 / 200

84. LAM is effective only when:

85 / 200

85. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

86 / 200

86. Main complaint with implants is:

87 / 200

87. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

88 / 200

88. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

89 / 200

89. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

90 / 200

90. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

91 / 200

91. A community benefits from FP through:

92 / 200

92. UTIs are commonly caused by:

93 / 200

93. Face presentation is caused by:

94 / 200

94. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

95 / 200

95. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

96 / 200

96. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

97 / 200

97. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

98 / 200

98. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

99 / 200

99. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

100 / 200

100. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

101 / 200

101. Superfecundation refers to:

102 / 200

102. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

103 / 200

103. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

104 / 200

104. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

105 / 200

105. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

106 / 200

106. Olanzapine is used in:

107 / 200

107. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

108 / 200

108. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

109 / 200

109. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

110 / 200

110. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

111 / 200

111. Total fertility rate refers to:

112 / 200

112. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

113 / 200

113. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

114 / 200

114. One complication of unstable lie is:

115 / 200

115. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

116 / 200

116. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

117 / 200

117. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

118 / 200

118. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

119 / 200

119. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

120 / 200

120. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

121 / 200

121. Which of the following best describes CPD?

122 / 200

122. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

123 / 200

123. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

124 / 200

124. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

125 / 200

125. The head is born by which movement?

126 / 200

126. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

127 / 200

127. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

128 / 200

128. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

129 / 200

129. Progering is suitable for:

130 / 200

130. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

131 / 200

131. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

132 / 200

132. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

133 / 200

133. Female condoms are made of:

134 / 200

134. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

135 / 200

135. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

136 / 200

136. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

137 / 200

137. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

138 / 200

138. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

139 / 200

139. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

140 / 200

140. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

141 / 200

141. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

142 / 200

142. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

143 / 200

143. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

144 / 200

144. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

145 / 200

145. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

146 / 200

146. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

147 / 200

147. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

148 / 200

148. Breech presentation is most common at:

149 / 200

149. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

150 / 200

150. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

151 / 200

151. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

152 / 200

152. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

153 / 200

153. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

154 / 200

154. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

155 / 200

155. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

156 / 200

156. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

157 / 200

157. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

158 / 200

158. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

159 / 200

159. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

160 / 200

160. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

161 / 200

161. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

162 / 200

162. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

163 / 200

163. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

164 / 200

164. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

165 / 200

165. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

166 / 200

166. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

167 / 200

167. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

168 / 200

168. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

169 / 200

169. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

170 / 200

170. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

171 / 200

171. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

172 / 200

172. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

173 / 200

173. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

174 / 200

174. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

175 / 200

175. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

176 / 200

176. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

177 / 200

177. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

178 / 200

178. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

179 / 200

179. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

180 / 200

180. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

181 / 200

181. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

182 / 200

182. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

183 / 200

183. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

184 / 200

184. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

185 / 200

185. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

186 / 200

186. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

187 / 200

187. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

188 / 200

188. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

189 / 200

189. The denominator in face presentation is:

190 / 200

190. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

191 / 200

191. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

192 / 200

192. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

193 / 200

193. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

194 / 200

194. Essure works by:

195 / 200

195. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

196 / 200

196. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

197 / 200

197. What describes a brow presentation?

198 / 200

198. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

199 / 200

199. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

200 / 200

200. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

Your score is

Please click the stars to rate the quiz

Thank you for your rating, we are glad and are committed to making more improvements

Comment (1)

  1. Moyo

    No

Leave your thought here

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Discover more from Study Companion

Subscribe now to keep reading and get access to the full archive.

Continue reading