Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

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This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

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1. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

2 / 200

2. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

3 / 200

3. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

4 / 200

4. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

5 / 200

5. Crowning occurs when:

6 / 200

6. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

7 / 200

7. What is the presenting part in vertex presentation?

8 / 200

8. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

9 / 200

9. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

10 / 200

10. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

11 / 200

11. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

12 / 200

12. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

13 / 200

13. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

14 / 200

14. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

15 / 200

15. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

16 / 200

16. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

17 / 200

17. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

18 / 200

18. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

19 / 200

19. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

20 / 200

20. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

21 / 200

21. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

22 / 200

22. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

23 / 200

23. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

24 / 200

24. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

25 / 200

25. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

26 / 200

26. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

27 / 200

27. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

28 / 200

28. The arcuate line separates the:

29 / 200

29. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

30 / 200

30. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

31 / 200

31. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

32 / 200

32. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

33 / 200

33. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

34 / 200

34. Noristerat is given every:

35 / 200

35. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

36 / 200

36. Restitution is best described as:

37 / 200

37. Congenital TB can result if:

38 / 200

38. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

39 / 200

39. One common complication of face presentation is:

40 / 200

40. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

41 / 200

41. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

42 / 200

42. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

43 / 200

43. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

44 / 200

44. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

45 / 200

45. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

46 / 200

46. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

47 / 200

47. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

48 / 200

48. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

49 / 200

49. Which of the following is a malposition?

50 / 200

50. Yuzpe method involves:

51 / 200

51. LAM is effective only when:

52 / 200

52. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

53 / 200

53. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

54 / 200

54. The most common malposition during labor is:

55 / 200

55. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

56 / 200

56. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

57 / 200

57. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

58 / 200

58. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

59 / 200

59. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

60 / 200

60. A typical post-mature baby may show:

61 / 200

61. A community benefits from FP through:

62 / 200

62. Mirena releases:

63 / 200

63. A transverse lie is categorized under:

64 / 200

64. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

65 / 200

65. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

66 / 200

66. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

67 / 200

67. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

68 / 200

68. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

69 / 200

69. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

70 / 200

70. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

71 / 200

71. Face presentation is caused by:

72 / 200

72. Progering is suitable for:

73 / 200

73. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

74 / 200

74. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

75 / 200

75. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

76 / 200

76. Essure works by:

77 / 200

77. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

78 / 200

78. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

79 / 200

79. The head is born by which movement?

80 / 200

80. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

81 / 200

81. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

82 / 200

82. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

83 / 200

83. Implantation bleeding is due to:

84 / 200

84. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

85 / 200

85. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

86 / 200

86. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

87 / 200

87. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

88 / 200

88. Superfecundation refers to:

89 / 200

89. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

90 / 200

90. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

91 / 200

91. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

92 / 200

92. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

93 / 200

93. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

94 / 200

94. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

95 / 200

95. One complication of unstable lie is:

96 / 200

96. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

97 / 200

97. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

98 / 200

98. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

99 / 200

99. Total fertility rate refers to:

100 / 200

100. Implanon is a:

101 / 200

101. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

102 / 200

102. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

103 / 200

103. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

104 / 200

104. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

105 / 200

105. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

106 / 200

106. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

107 / 200

107. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

108 / 200

108. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

109 / 200

109. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

110 / 200

110. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

111 / 200

111. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

112 / 200

112. Olanzapine is used in:

113 / 200

113. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

114 / 200

114. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

115 / 200

115. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

116 / 200

116. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

117 / 200

117. A symptom of IUFD includes:

118 / 200

118. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

119 / 200

119. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

120 / 200

120. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

121 / 200

121. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

122 / 200

122. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

123 / 200

123. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

124 / 200

124. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

125 / 200

125. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

126 / 200

126. Nonoxynol-9 is:

127 / 200

127. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

128 / 200

128. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

129 / 200

129. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

130 / 200

130. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

131 / 200

131. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

132 / 200

132. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

133 / 200

133. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

134 / 200

134. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

135 / 200

135. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

136 / 200

136. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

137 / 200

137. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

138 / 200

138. Which of the following best describes CPD?

139 / 200

139. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

140 / 200

140. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

141 / 200

141. UTIs are commonly caused by:

142 / 200

142. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

143 / 200

143. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

144 / 200

144. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

145 / 200

145. Main complaint with implants is:

146 / 200

146. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

147 / 200

147. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

148 / 200

148. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

149 / 200

149. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

150 / 200

150. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

151 / 200

151. The denominator in face presentation is:

152 / 200

152. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

153 / 200

153. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

154 / 200

154. What indicates successful OP rotation?

155 / 200

155. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

156 / 200

156. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

157 / 200

157. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

158 / 200

158. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

159 / 200

159. What describes a brow presentation?

160 / 200

160. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

161 / 200

161. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

162 / 200

162. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

163 / 200

163. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

164 / 200

164. Partner treatment is essential in:

165 / 200

165. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

166 / 200

166. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

167 / 200

167. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

168 / 200

168. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

169 / 200

169. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

170 / 200

170. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

171 / 200

171. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

172 / 200

172. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

173 / 200

173. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

174 / 200

174. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

175 / 200

175. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

176 / 200

176. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

177 / 200

177. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

178 / 200

178. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

179 / 200

179. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

180 / 200

180. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

181 / 200

181. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

182 / 200

182. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

183 / 200

183. Contraception is best defined as:

184 / 200

184. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

185 / 200

185. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

186 / 200

186. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

187 / 200

187. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

188 / 200

188. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

189 / 200

189. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

190 / 200

190. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

191 / 200

191. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

192 / 200

192. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

193 / 200

193. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

194 / 200

194. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

195 / 200

195. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

196 / 200

196. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

197 / 200

197. Adiana method combines:

198 / 200

198. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

199 / 200

199. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

200 / 200

200. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

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