Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

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This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

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1. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

2 / 200

2. Flat nipples are best managed by:

3 / 200

3. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

4 / 200

4. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

5 / 200

5. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

6 / 200

6. The arcuate line separates the:

7 / 200

7. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

8 / 200

8. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

9 / 200

9. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

10 / 200

10. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

11 / 200

11. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

12 / 200

12. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

13 / 200

13. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

14 / 200

14. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

15 / 200

15. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

16 / 200

16. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

17 / 200

17. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

18 / 200

18. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

19 / 200

19. Face presentation is caused by:

20 / 200

20. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

21 / 200

21. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

22 / 200

22. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

23 / 200

23. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

24 / 200

24. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

25 / 200

25. Breech presentation is most common at:

26 / 200

26. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

27 / 200

27. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

28 / 200

28. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

29 / 200

29. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

30 / 200

30. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

31 / 200

31. Mirena releases:

32 / 200

32. What is the presenting part in vertex presentation?

33 / 200

33. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

34 / 200

34. Partner treatment is essential in:

35 / 200

35. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

36 / 200

36. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

37 / 200

37. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

38 / 200

38. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

39 / 200

39. What describes a brow presentation?

40 / 200

40. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

41 / 200

41. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

42 / 200

42. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

43 / 200

43. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

44 / 200

44. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

45 / 200

45. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

46 / 200

46. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

47 / 200

47. A symptom of IUFD includes:

48 / 200

48. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

49 / 200

49. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

50 / 200

50. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

51 / 200

51. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

52 / 200

52. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

53 / 200

53. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

54 / 200

54. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

55 / 200

55. Which of the following is a malposition?

56 / 200

56. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

57 / 200

57. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

58 / 200

58. A community benefits from FP through:

59 / 200

59. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

60 / 200

60. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

61 / 200

61. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

62 / 200

62. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

63 / 200

63. Olanzapine is used in:

64 / 200

64. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

65 / 200

65. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

66 / 200

66. Which of the following best describes CPD?

67 / 200

67. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

68 / 200

68. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

69 / 200

69. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

70 / 200

70. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

71 / 200

71. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

72 / 200

72. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

73 / 200

73. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

74 / 200

74. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

75 / 200

75. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

76 / 200

76. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

77 / 200

77. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

78 / 200

78. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

79 / 200

79. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

80 / 200

80. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

81 / 200

81. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

82 / 200

82. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

83 / 200

83. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

84 / 200

84. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

85 / 200

85. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

86 / 200

86. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

87 / 200

87. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

88 / 200

88. Depo-Provera is administered:

89 / 200

89. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

90 / 200

90. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

91 / 200

91. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

92 / 200

92. Implantation bleeding is due to:

93 / 200

93. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

94 / 200

94. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

95 / 200

95. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

96 / 200

96. The denominator in face presentation is:

97 / 200

97. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

98 / 200

98. Restitution is best described as:

99 / 200

99. Adiana method combines:

100 / 200

100. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

101 / 200

101. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

102 / 200

102. Nonoxynol-9 is:

103 / 200

103. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

104 / 200

104. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

105 / 200

105. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

106 / 200

106. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

107 / 200

107. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

108 / 200

108. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

109 / 200

109. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

110 / 200

110. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

111 / 200

111. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

112 / 200

112. Noristerat is given every:

113 / 200

113. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

114 / 200

114. A transverse lie is categorized under:

115 / 200

115. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

116 / 200

116. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

117 / 200

117. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

118 / 200

118. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

119 / 200

119. Yuzpe method involves:

120 / 200

120. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

121 / 200

121. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

122 / 200

122. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

123 / 200

123. Essure works by:

124 / 200

124. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

125 / 200

125. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

126 / 200

126. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

127 / 200

127. One complication of unstable lie is:

128 / 200

128. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

129 / 200

129. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

130 / 200

130. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

131 / 200

131. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

132 / 200

132. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

133 / 200

133. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

134 / 200

134. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

135 / 200

135. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

136 / 200

136. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

137 / 200

137. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

138 / 200

138. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

139 / 200

139. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

140 / 200

140. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

141 / 200

141. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

142 / 200

142. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

143 / 200

143. Total fertility rate refers to:

144 / 200

144. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

145 / 200

145. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

146 / 200

146. Congenital TB can result if:

147 / 200

147. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

148 / 200

148. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

149 / 200

149. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

150 / 200

150. Superfecundation refers to:

151 / 200

151. Female condoms are made of:

152 / 200

152. UTIs are commonly caused by:

153 / 200

153. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

154 / 200

154. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

155 / 200

155. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

156 / 200

156. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

157 / 200

157. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

158 / 200

158. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

159 / 200

159. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

160 / 200

160. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

161 / 200

161. Family Planning benefits the father by:

162 / 200

162. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

163 / 200

163. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

164 / 200

164. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

165 / 200

165. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

166 / 200

166. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

167 / 200

167. One common complication of face presentation is:

168 / 200

168. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

169 / 200

169. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

170 / 200

170. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

171 / 200

171. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

172 / 200

172. LAM is effective only when:

173 / 200

173. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

174 / 200

174. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

175 / 200

175. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

176 / 200

176. A typical post-mature baby may show:

177 / 200

177. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

178 / 200

178. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

179 / 200

179. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

180 / 200

180. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

181 / 200

181. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

182 / 200

182. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

183 / 200

183. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

184 / 200

184. What indicates successful OP rotation?

185 / 200

185. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

186 / 200

186. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

187 / 200

187. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

188 / 200

188. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

189 / 200

189. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

190 / 200

190. Implanon is a:

191 / 200

191. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

192 / 200

192. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

193 / 200

193. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

194 / 200

194. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

195 / 200

195. Crowning occurs when:

196 / 200

196. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

197 / 200

197. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

198 / 200

198. Vaginal rings act by:

199 / 200

199. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

200 / 200

200. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

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