Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

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This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

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1. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

2 / 200

2. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

3 / 200

3. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

4 / 200

4. Yuzpe method involves:

5 / 200

5. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

6 / 200

6. Which of the following is a malposition?

7 / 200

7. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

8 / 200

8. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

9 / 200

9. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

10 / 200

10. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

11 / 200

11. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

12 / 200

12. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

13 / 200

13. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

14 / 200

14. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

15 / 200

15. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

16 / 200

16. What describes a brow presentation?

17 / 200

17. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

18 / 200

18. Female condoms are made of:

19 / 200

19. Adiana method combines:

20 / 200

20. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

21 / 200

21. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

22 / 200

22. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

23 / 200

23. Face presentation is caused by:

24 / 200

24. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

25 / 200

25. Restitution is best described as:

26 / 200

26. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

27 / 200

27. Depo-Provera is administered:

28 / 200

28. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

29 / 200

29. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

30 / 200

30. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

31 / 200

31. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

32 / 200

32. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

33 / 200

33. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

34 / 200

34. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

35 / 200

35. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

36 / 200

36. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

37 / 200

37. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

38 / 200

38. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

39 / 200

39. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

40 / 200

40. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

41 / 200

41. A community benefits from FP through:

42 / 200

42. Family Planning benefits the father by:

43 / 200

43. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

44 / 200

44. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

45 / 200

45. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

46 / 200

46. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

47 / 200

47. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

48 / 200

48. Nonoxynol-9 is:

49 / 200

49. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

50 / 200

50. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

51 / 200

51. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

52 / 200

52. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

53 / 200

53. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

54 / 200

54. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

55 / 200

55. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

56 / 200

56. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

57 / 200

57. A symptom of IUFD includes:

58 / 200

58. The arcuate line separates the:

59 / 200

59. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

60 / 200

60. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

61 / 200

61. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

62 / 200

62. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

63 / 200

63. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

64 / 200

64. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

65 / 200

65. Noristerat is given every:

66 / 200

66. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

67 / 200

67. Crowning occurs when:

68 / 200

68. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

69 / 200

69. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

70 / 200

70. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

71 / 200

71. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

72 / 200

72. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

73 / 200

73. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

74 / 200

74. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

75 / 200

75. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

76 / 200

76. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

77 / 200

77. One complication of unstable lie is:

78 / 200

78. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

79 / 200

79. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

80 / 200

80. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

81 / 200

81. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

82 / 200

82. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

83 / 200

83. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

84 / 200

84. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

85 / 200

85. Contraception is best defined as:

86 / 200

86. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

87 / 200

87. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

88 / 200

88. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

89 / 200

89. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

90 / 200

90. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

91 / 200

91. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

92 / 200

92. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

93 / 200

93. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

94 / 200

94. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

95 / 200

95. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

96 / 200

96. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

97 / 200

97. Vaginal rings act by:

98 / 200

98. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

99 / 200

99. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

100 / 200

100. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

101 / 200

101. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

102 / 200

102. Total fertility rate refers to:

103 / 200

103. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

104 / 200

104. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

105 / 200

105. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

106 / 200

106. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

107 / 200

107. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

108 / 200

108. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

109 / 200

109. One common complication of face presentation is:

110 / 200

110. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

111 / 200

111. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

112 / 200

112. A transverse lie is categorized under:

113 / 200

113. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

114 / 200

114. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

115 / 200

115. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

116 / 200

116. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

117 / 200

117. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

118 / 200

118. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

119 / 200

119. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

120 / 200

120. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

121 / 200

121. Which of the following best describes CPD?

122 / 200

122. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

123 / 200

123. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

124 / 200

124. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

125 / 200

125. Mirena releases:

126 / 200

126. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

127 / 200

127. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

128 / 200

128. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

129 / 200

129. The denominator in face presentation is:

130 / 200

130. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

131 / 200

131. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

132 / 200

132. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

133 / 200

133. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

134 / 200

134. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

135 / 200

135. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

136 / 200

136. What indicates successful OP rotation?

137 / 200

137. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

138 / 200

138. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

139 / 200

139. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

140 / 200

140. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

141 / 200

141. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

142 / 200

142. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

143 / 200

143. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

144 / 200

144. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

145 / 200

145. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

146 / 200

146. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

147 / 200

147. Flat nipples are best managed by:

148 / 200

148. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

149 / 200

149. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

150 / 200

150. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

151 / 200

151. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

152 / 200

152. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

153 / 200

153. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

154 / 200

154. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

155 / 200

155. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

156 / 200

156. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

157 / 200

157. Breech presentation is most common at:

158 / 200

158. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

159 / 200

159. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

160 / 200

160. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

161 / 200

161. A typical post-mature baby may show:

162 / 200

162. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

163 / 200

163. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

164 / 200

164. UTIs are commonly caused by:

165 / 200

165. Essure works by:

166 / 200

166. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

167 / 200

167. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

168 / 200

168. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

169 / 200

169. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

170 / 200

170. LAM is effective only when:

171 / 200

171. Main complaint with implants is:

172 / 200

172. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

173 / 200

173. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

174 / 200

174. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

175 / 200

175. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

176 / 200

176. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

177 / 200

177. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

178 / 200

178. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

179 / 200

179. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

180 / 200

180. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

181 / 200

181. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

182 / 200

182. Implanon is a:

183 / 200

183. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

184 / 200

184. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

185 / 200

185. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

186 / 200

186. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

187 / 200

187. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

188 / 200

188. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

189 / 200

189. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

190 / 200

190. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

191 / 200

191. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

192 / 200

192. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

193 / 200

193. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

194 / 200

194. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

195 / 200

195. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

196 / 200

196. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

197 / 200

197. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

198 / 200

198. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

199 / 200

199. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

200 / 200

200. Partner treatment is essential in:

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