Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

1. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

2. A community benefits from FP through:

3. Total fertility rate refers to:

4. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

5. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

6. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

7. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

8. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

9. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

10. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

11. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

12. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

13. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

14. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

15. Family Planning benefits the father by:

16. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

17. Flat nipples are best managed by:

18. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

19. Face presentation is caused by:

20. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

21. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

22. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

23. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

24. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

25. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

26. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

27. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

28. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

29. A typical post-mature baby may show:

30. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

31. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

32. Contraception is best defined as:

33. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

34. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

35. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

36. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

37. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

38. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

39. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

40. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

41. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

42. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

43. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

44. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

45. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

46. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

47. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

48. One complication of unstable lie is:

49. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

50. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

51. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

52. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

53. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

54. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

55. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

56. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

57. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

58. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

59. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

60. Implantation bleeding is due to:

61. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

62. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

63. The most common malposition during labor is:

64. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

65. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

66. Nonoxynol-9 is:

67. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

68. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

69. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

70. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

71. Crowning occurs when:

72. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

73. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

74. Progering is suitable for:

75. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

76. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

77. The denominator in face presentation is:

78. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

79. Depo-Provera is administered:

80. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

81. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

82. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

83. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

84. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

85. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

86. UTIs are commonly caused by:

87. The arcuate line separates the:

88. Adiana method combines:

89. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

90. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

91. The head is born by which movement?

92. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

93. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

94. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

95. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

96. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

97. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

98. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

99. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

100. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

101. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

102. One common complication of face presentation is:

103. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

104. Olanzapine is used in:

105. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

106. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

107. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

108. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

109. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

110. Restitution is best described as:

111. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

112. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

113. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

114. Partner treatment is essential in:

115. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

116. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

117. Mirena releases:

118. Yuzpe method involves:

119. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

120. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

121. Vaginal rings act by:

122. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

123. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

124. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

125. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

126. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

127. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

128. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

129. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

130. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

131. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

132. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

133. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

134. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

135. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

136. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

137. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

138. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

139. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

140. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

141. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

142. Main complaint with implants is:

143. Congenital TB can result if:

144. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

145. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

146. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

147. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

148. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

149. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

150. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

151. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

152. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

153. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

154. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

155. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

156. Essure works by:

157. What is the presenting part in vertex presentation?

158. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

159. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

160. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

161. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

162. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

163. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

164. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

165. What describes a brow presentation?

166. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

167. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

168. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

169. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

170. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

171. A symptom of IUFD includes:

172. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

173. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

174. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

175. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

176. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

177. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

178. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

179. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

180. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

181. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

182. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

183. LAM is effective only when:

184. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

185. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

186. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

187. A transverse lie is categorized under:

188. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

189. Superfecundation refers to:

190. Which of the following is a malposition?

191. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

192. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

193. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

194. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

195. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

196. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

197. Female condoms are made of:

198. Implanon is a:

199. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

200. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for: