Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

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This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

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1 / 200

1. One common complication of face presentation is:

2 / 200

2. A symptom of IUFD includes:

3 / 200

3. LAM is effective only when:

4 / 200

4. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

5 / 200

5. The head is born by which movement?

6 / 200

6. A community benefits from FP through:

7 / 200

7. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

8 / 200

8. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

9 / 200

9. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

10 / 200

10. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

11 / 200

11. Essure works by:

12 / 200

12. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

13 / 200

13. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

14 / 200

14. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

15 / 200

15. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

16 / 200

16. The denominator in face presentation is:

17 / 200

17. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

18 / 200

18. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

19 / 200

19. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

20 / 200

20. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

21 / 200

21. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

22 / 200

22. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

23 / 200

23. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

24 / 200

24. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

25 / 200

25. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

26 / 200

26. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

27 / 200

27. Total fertility rate refers to:

28 / 200

28. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

29 / 200

29. Olanzapine is used in:

30 / 200

30. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

31 / 200

31. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

32 / 200

32. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

33 / 200

33. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

34 / 200

34. The most common malposition during labor is:

35 / 200

35. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

36 / 200

36. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

37 / 200

37. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

38 / 200

38. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

39 / 200

39. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

40 / 200

40. Flat nipples are best managed by:

41 / 200

41. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

42 / 200

42. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

43 / 200

43. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

44 / 200

44. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

45 / 200

45. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

46 / 200

46. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

47 / 200

47. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

48 / 200

48. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

49 / 200

49. UTIs are commonly caused by:

50 / 200

50. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

51 / 200

51. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

52 / 200

52. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

53 / 200

53. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

54 / 200

54. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

55 / 200

55. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

56 / 200

56. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

57 / 200

57. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

58 / 200

58. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

59 / 200

59. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

60 / 200

60. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

61 / 200

61. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

62 / 200

62. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

63 / 200

63. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

64 / 200

64. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

65 / 200

65. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

66 / 200

66. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

67 / 200

67. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

68 / 200

68. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

69 / 200

69. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

70 / 200

70. Which of the following is a malposition?

71 / 200

71. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

72 / 200

72. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

73 / 200

73. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

74 / 200

74. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

75 / 200

75. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

76 / 200

76. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

77 / 200

77. Mirena releases:

78 / 200

78. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

79 / 200

79. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

80 / 200

80. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

81 / 200

81. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

82 / 200

82. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

83 / 200

83. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

84 / 200

84. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

85 / 200

85. Progering is suitable for:

86 / 200

86. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

87 / 200

87. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

88 / 200

88. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

89 / 200

89. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

90 / 200

90. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

91 / 200

91. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

92 / 200

92. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

93 / 200

93. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

94 / 200

94. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

95 / 200

95. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

96 / 200

96. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

97 / 200

97. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

98 / 200

98. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

99 / 200

99. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

100 / 200

100. Superfecundation refers to:

101 / 200

101. Breech presentation is most common at:

102 / 200

102. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

103 / 200

103. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

104 / 200

104. Adiana method combines:

105 / 200

105. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

106 / 200

106. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

107 / 200

107. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

108 / 200

108. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

109 / 200

109. What indicates successful OP rotation?

110 / 200

110. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

111 / 200

111. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

112 / 200

112. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

113 / 200

113. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

114 / 200

114. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

115 / 200

115. The arcuate line separates the:

116 / 200

116. Vaginal rings act by:

117 / 200

117. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

118 / 200

118. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

119 / 200

119. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

120 / 200

120. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

121 / 200

121. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

122 / 200

122. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

123 / 200

123. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

124 / 200

124. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

125 / 200

125. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

126 / 200

126. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

127 / 200

127. Contraception is best defined as:

128 / 200

128. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

129 / 200

129. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

130 / 200

130. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

131 / 200

131. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

132 / 200

132. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

133 / 200

133. Face presentation is caused by:

134 / 200

134. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

135 / 200

135. Implanon is a:

136 / 200

136. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

137 / 200

137. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

138 / 200

138. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

139 / 200

139. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

140 / 200

140. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

141 / 200

141. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

142 / 200

142. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

143 / 200

143. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

144 / 200

144. Congenital TB can result if:

145 / 200

145. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

146 / 200

146. Family Planning benefits the father by:

147 / 200

147. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

148 / 200

148. Main complaint with implants is:

149 / 200

149. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

150 / 200

150. Crowning occurs when:

151 / 200

151. Noristerat is given every:

152 / 200

152. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

153 / 200

153. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

154 / 200

154. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

155 / 200

155. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

156 / 200

156. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

157 / 200

157. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

158 / 200

158. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

159 / 200

159. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

160 / 200

160. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

161 / 200

161. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

162 / 200

162. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

163 / 200

163. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

164 / 200

164. Depo-Provera is administered:

165 / 200

165. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

166 / 200

166. Female condoms are made of:

167 / 200

167. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

168 / 200

168. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

169 / 200

169. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

170 / 200

170. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

171 / 200

171. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

172 / 200

172. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

173 / 200

173. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

174 / 200

174. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

175 / 200

175. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

176 / 200

176. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

177 / 200

177. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

178 / 200

178. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

179 / 200

179. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

180 / 200

180. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

181 / 200

181. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

182 / 200

182. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

183 / 200

183. A transverse lie is categorized under:

184 / 200

184. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

185 / 200

185. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

186 / 200

186. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

187 / 200

187. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

188 / 200

188. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

189 / 200

189. Yuzpe method involves:

190 / 200

190. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

191 / 200

191. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

192 / 200

192. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

193 / 200

193. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

194 / 200

194. Nonoxynol-9 is:

195 / 200

195. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

196 / 200

196. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

197 / 200

197. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

198 / 200

198. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

199 / 200

199. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

200 / 200

200. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

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