Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

1. Congenital TB can result if:

2. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

3. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

4. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

5. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

6. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

7. Crowning occurs when:

8. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

9. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

10. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

11. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

12. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

13. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

14. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

15. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

16. Noristerat is given every:

17. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

18. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

19. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

20. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

21. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

22. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

23. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

24. Flat nipples are best managed by:

25. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

26. Family Planning benefits the father by:

27. A community benefits from FP through:

28. Progering is suitable for:

29. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

30. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

31. LAM is effective only when:

32. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

33. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

34. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

35. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

36. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

37. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

38. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

39. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

40. A typical post-mature baby may show:

41. UTIs are commonly caused by:

42. Face presentation is caused by:

43. Contraception is best defined as:

44. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

45. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

46. The denominator in face presentation is:

47. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

48. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

49. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

50. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

51. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

52. The most common malposition during labor is:

53. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

54. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

55. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

56. Adiana method combines:

57. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

58. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

59. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

60. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

61. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

62. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

63. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

64. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

65. Olanzapine is used in:

66. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

67. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

68. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

69. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

70. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

71. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

72. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

73. Total fertility rate refers to:

74. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

75. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

76. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

77. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

78. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

79. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

80. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

81. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

82. One common complication of face presentation is:

83. A transverse lie is categorized under:

84. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

85. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

86. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

87. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

88. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

89. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

90. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

91. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

92. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

93. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

94. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

95. Vaginal rings act by:

96. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

97. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

98. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

99. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

100. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

101. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

102. Implantation bleeding is due to:

103. What describes a brow presentation?

104. Which of the following best describes CPD?

105. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

106. Depo-Provera is administered:

107. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

108. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

109. Female condoms are made of:

110. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

111. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

112. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

113. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

114. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

115. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

116. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

117. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

118. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

119. Partner treatment is essential in:

120. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

121. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

122. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

123. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

124. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

125. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

126. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

127. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

128. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

129. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

130. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

131. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

132. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

133. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

134. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

135. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

136. The arcuate line separates the:

137. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

138. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

139. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

140. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

141. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

142. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

143. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

144. Restitution is best described as:

145. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

146. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

147. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

148. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

149. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

150. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

151. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

152. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

153. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

154. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

155. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

156. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

157. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

158. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

159. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

160. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

161. Main complaint with implants is:

162. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

163. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

164. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

165. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

166. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

167. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

168. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

169. What indicates successful OP rotation?

170. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

171. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

172. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

173. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

174. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

175. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

176. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

177. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

178. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

179. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

180. Superfecundation refers to:

181. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

182. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

183. Implanon is a:

184. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

185. Breech presentation is most common at:

186. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

187. Yuzpe method involves:

188. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

189. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

190. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

191. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

192. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

193. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

194. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

195. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

196. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

197. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

198. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

199. Mirena releases:

200. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?