Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

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This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

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1. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

2 / 200

2. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

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3. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

4 / 200

4. Olanzapine is used in:

5 / 200

5. Mirena releases:

6 / 200

6. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

7 / 200

7. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

8 / 200

8. Progering is suitable for:

9 / 200

9. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

10 / 200

10. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

11 / 200

11. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

12 / 200

12. The arcuate line separates the:

13 / 200

13. Face presentation is caused by:

14 / 200

14. Female condoms are made of:

15 / 200

15. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

16 / 200

16. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

17 / 200

17. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

18 / 200

18. Implantation bleeding is due to:

19 / 200

19. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

20 / 200

20. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

21 / 200

21. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

22 / 200

22. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

23 / 200

23. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

24 / 200

24. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

25 / 200

25. One common complication of face presentation is:

26 / 200

26. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

27 / 200

27. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

28 / 200

28. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

29 / 200

29. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

30 / 200

30. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

31 / 200

31. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

32 / 200

32. Contraception is best defined as:

33 / 200

33. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

34 / 200

34. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

35 / 200

35. Restitution is best described as:

36 / 200

36. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

37 / 200

37. Implanon is a:

38 / 200

38. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

39 / 200

39. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

40 / 200

40. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

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41. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

42 / 200

42. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

43 / 200

43. Partner treatment is essential in:

44 / 200

44. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

45 / 200

45. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

46 / 200

46. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

47 / 200

47. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

48 / 200

48. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

49 / 200

49. UTIs are commonly caused by:

50 / 200

50. Which of the following is a malposition?

51 / 200

51. Vaginal rings act by:

52 / 200

52. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

53 / 200

53. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

54 / 200

54. Yuzpe method involves:

55 / 200

55. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

56 / 200

56. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

57 / 200

57. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

58 / 200

58. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

59 / 200

59. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

60 / 200

60. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

61 / 200

61. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

62 / 200

62. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

63 / 200

63. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

64 / 200

64. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

65 / 200

65. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

66 / 200

66. LAM is effective only when:

67 / 200

67. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

68 / 200

68. A transverse lie is categorized under:

69 / 200

69. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

70 / 200

70. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

71 / 200

71. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

72 / 200

72. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

73 / 200

73. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

74 / 200

74. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

75 / 200

75. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

76 / 200

76. One complication of unstable lie is:

77 / 200

77. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

78 / 200

78. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

79 / 200

79. The head is born by which movement?

80 / 200

80. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

81 / 200

81. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

82 / 200

82. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

83 / 200

83. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

84 / 200

84. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

85 / 200

85. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

86 / 200

86. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

87 / 200

87. A symptom of IUFD includes:

88 / 200

88. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

89 / 200

89. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

90 / 200

90. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

91 / 200

91. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

92 / 200

92. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

93 / 200

93. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

94 / 200

94. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

95 / 200

95. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

96 / 200

96. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

97 / 200

97. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

98 / 200

98. Total fertility rate refers to:

99 / 200

99. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

100 / 200

100. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

101 / 200

101. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

102 / 200

102. Essure works by:

103 / 200

103. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

104 / 200

104. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

105 / 200

105. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

106 / 200

106. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

107 / 200

107. Adiana method combines:

108 / 200

108. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

109 / 200

109. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

110 / 200

110. A typical post-mature baby may show:

111 / 200

111. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

112 / 200

112. The most common malposition during labor is:

113 / 200

113. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

114 / 200

114. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

115 / 200

115. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

116 / 200

116. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

117 / 200

117. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

118 / 200

118. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

119 / 200

119. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

120 / 200

120. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

121 / 200

121. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

122 / 200

122. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

123 / 200

123. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

124 / 200

124. Congenital TB can result if:

125 / 200

125. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

126 / 200

126. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

127 / 200

127. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

128 / 200

128. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

129 / 200

129. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

130 / 200

130. What is the presenting part in vertex presentation?

131 / 200

131. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

132 / 200

132. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

133 / 200

133. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

134 / 200

134. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

135 / 200

135. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

136 / 200

136. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

137 / 200

137. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

138 / 200

138. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

139 / 200

139. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

140 / 200

140. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

141 / 200

141. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

142 / 200

142. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

143 / 200

143. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

144 / 200

144. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

145 / 200

145. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

146 / 200

146. Crowning occurs when:

147 / 200

147. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

148 / 200

148. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

149 / 200

149. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

150 / 200

150. What describes a brow presentation?

151 / 200

151. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

152 / 200

152. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

153 / 200

153. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

154 / 200

154. What indicates successful OP rotation?

155 / 200

155. Superfecundation refers to:

156 / 200

156. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

157 / 200

157. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

158 / 200

158. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

159 / 200

159. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

160 / 200

160. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

161 / 200

161. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

162 / 200

162. Family Planning benefits the father by:

163 / 200

163. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

164 / 200

164. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

165 / 200

165. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

166 / 200

166. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

167 / 200

167. The denominator in face presentation is:

168 / 200

168. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

169 / 200

169. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

170 / 200

170. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

171 / 200

171. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

172 / 200

172. Flat nipples are best managed by:

173 / 200

173. Main complaint with implants is:

174 / 200

174. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

175 / 200

175. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

176 / 200

176. Breech presentation is most common at:

177 / 200

177. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

178 / 200

178. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

179 / 200

179. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

180 / 200

180. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

181 / 200

181. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

182 / 200

182. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

183 / 200

183. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

184 / 200

184. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

185 / 200

185. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

186 / 200

186. Depo-Provera is administered:

187 / 200

187. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

188 / 200

188. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

189 / 200

189. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

190 / 200

190. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

191 / 200

191. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

192 / 200

192. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

193 / 200

193. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

194 / 200

194. A community benefits from FP through:

195 / 200

195. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

196 / 200

196. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

197 / 200

197. Which of the following best describes CPD?

198 / 200

198. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

199 / 200

199. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

200 / 200

200. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

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