Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

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This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

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1 / 200

1. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

2 / 200

2. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

3 / 200

3. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

4 / 200

4. Progering is suitable for:

5 / 200

5. Yuzpe method involves:

6 / 200

6. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

7 / 200

7. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

8 / 200

8. One complication of unstable lie is:

9 / 200

9. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

10 / 200

10. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

11 / 200

11. A symptom of IUFD includes:

12 / 200

12. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

13 / 200

13. One common complication of face presentation is:

14 / 200

14. Vaginal rings act by:

15 / 200

15. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

16 / 200

16. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

17 / 200

17. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

18 / 200

18. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

19 / 200

19. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

20 / 200

20. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

21 / 200

21. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

22 / 200

22. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

23 / 200

23. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

24 / 200

24. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

25 / 200

25. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

26 / 200

26. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

27 / 200

27. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

28 / 200

28. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

29 / 200

29. A community benefits from FP through:

30 / 200

30. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

31 / 200

31. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

32 / 200

32. Congenital TB can result if:

33 / 200

33. Which of the following is a malposition?

34 / 200

34. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

35 / 200

35. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

36 / 200

36. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

37 / 200

37. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

38 / 200

38. Adiana method combines:

39 / 200

39. What is the presenting part in vertex presentation?

40 / 200

40. The denominator in face presentation is:

41 / 200

41. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

42 / 200

42. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

43 / 200

43. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

44 / 200

44. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

45 / 200

45. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

46 / 200

46. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

47 / 200

47. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

48 / 200

48. A transverse lie is categorized under:

49 / 200

49. Total fertility rate refers to:

50 / 200

50. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

51 / 200

51. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

52 / 200

52. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

53 / 200

53. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

54 / 200

54. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

55 / 200

55. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

56 / 200

56. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

57 / 200

57. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

58 / 200

58. Nonoxynol-9 is:

59 / 200

59. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

60 / 200

60. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

61 / 200

61. The head is born by which movement?

62 / 200

62. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

63 / 200

63. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

64 / 200

64. Female condoms are made of:

65 / 200

65. Restitution is best described as:

66 / 200

66. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

67 / 200

67. Crowning occurs when:

68 / 200

68. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

69 / 200

69. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

70 / 200

70. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

71 / 200

71. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

72 / 200

72. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

73 / 200

73. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

74 / 200

74. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

75 / 200

75. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

76 / 200

76. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

77 / 200

77. Depo-Provera is administered:

78 / 200

78. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

79 / 200

79. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

80 / 200

80. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

81 / 200

81. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

82 / 200

82. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

83 / 200

83. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

84 / 200

84. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

85 / 200

85. Face presentation is caused by:

86 / 200

86. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

87 / 200

87. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

88 / 200

88. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

89 / 200

89. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

90 / 200

90. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

91 / 200

91. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

92 / 200

92. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

93 / 200

93. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

94 / 200

94. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

95 / 200

95. Which of the following best describes CPD?

96 / 200

96. Mirena releases:

97 / 200

97. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

98 / 200

98. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

99 / 200

99. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

100 / 200

100. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

101 / 200

101. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

102 / 200

102. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

103 / 200

103. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

104 / 200

104. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

105 / 200

105. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

106 / 200

106. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

107 / 200

107. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

108 / 200

108. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

109 / 200

109. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

110 / 200

110. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

111 / 200

111. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

112 / 200

112. Family Planning benefits the father by:

113 / 200

113. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

114 / 200

114. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

115 / 200

115. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

116 / 200

116. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

117 / 200

117. Implanon is a:

118 / 200

118. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

119 / 200

119. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

120 / 200

120. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

121 / 200

121. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

122 / 200

122. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

123 / 200

123. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

124 / 200

124. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

125 / 200

125. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

126 / 200

126. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

127 / 200

127. The most common malposition during labor is:

128 / 200

128. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

129 / 200

129. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

130 / 200

130. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

131 / 200

131. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

132 / 200

132. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

133 / 200

133. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

134 / 200

134. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

135 / 200

135. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

136 / 200

136. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

137 / 200

137. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

138 / 200

138. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

139 / 200

139. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

140 / 200

140. Olanzapine is used in:

141 / 200

141. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

142 / 200

142. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

143 / 200

143. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

144 / 200

144. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

145 / 200

145. Essure works by:

146 / 200

146. Implantation bleeding is due to:

147 / 200

147. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

148 / 200

148. Contraception is best defined as:

149 / 200

149. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

150 / 200

150. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

151 / 200

151. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

152 / 200

152. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

153 / 200

153. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

154 / 200

154. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

155 / 200

155. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

156 / 200

156. Flat nipples are best managed by:

157 / 200

157. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

158 / 200

158. Main complaint with implants is:

159 / 200

159. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

160 / 200

160. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

161 / 200

161. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

162 / 200

162. Breech presentation is most common at:

163 / 200

163. Superfecundation refers to:

164 / 200

164. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

165 / 200

165. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

166 / 200

166. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

167 / 200

167. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

168 / 200

168. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

169 / 200

169. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

170 / 200

170. What indicates successful OP rotation?

171 / 200

171. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

172 / 200

172. LAM is effective only when:

173 / 200

173. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

174 / 200

174. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

175 / 200

175. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

176 / 200

176. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

177 / 200

177. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

178 / 200

178. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

179 / 200

179. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

180 / 200

180. Partner treatment is essential in:

181 / 200

181. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

182 / 200

182. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

183 / 200

183. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

184 / 200

184. A typical post-mature baby may show:

185 / 200

185. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

186 / 200

186. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

187 / 200

187. What describes a brow presentation?

188 / 200

188. The arcuate line separates the:

189 / 200

189. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

190 / 200

190. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

191 / 200

191. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

192 / 200

192. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

193 / 200

193. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

194 / 200

194. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

195 / 200

195. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

196 / 200

196. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

197 / 200

197. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

198 / 200

198. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

199 / 200

199. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

200 / 200

200. Noristerat is given every:

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