Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

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Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

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This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

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1 / 200

1. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

2 / 200

2. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

3 / 200

3. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

4 / 200

4. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

5 / 200

5. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

6 / 200

6. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

7 / 200

7. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

8 / 200

8. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

9 / 200

9. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

10 / 200

10. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

11 / 200

11. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

12 / 200

12. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

13 / 200

13. The most common malposition during labor is:

14 / 200

14. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

15 / 200

15. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

16 / 200

16. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

17 / 200

17. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

18 / 200

18. Congenital TB can result if:

19 / 200

19. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

20 / 200

20. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

21 / 200

21. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

22 / 200

22. A symptom of IUFD includes:

23 / 200

23. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

24 / 200

24. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

25 / 200

25. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

26 / 200

26. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

27 / 200

27. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

28 / 200

28. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

29 / 200

29. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

30 / 200

30. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

31 / 200

31. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

32 / 200

32. What indicates successful OP rotation?

33 / 200

33. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

34 / 200

34. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

35 / 200

35. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

36 / 200

36. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

37 / 200

37. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

38 / 200

38. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

39 / 200

39. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

40 / 200

40. A community benefits from FP through:

41 / 200

41. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

42 / 200

42. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

43 / 200

43. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

44 / 200

44. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

45 / 200

45. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

46 / 200

46. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

47 / 200

47. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

48 / 200

48. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

49 / 200

49. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

50 / 200

50. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

51 / 200

51. Nonoxynol-9 is:

52 / 200

52. Partner treatment is essential in:

53 / 200

53. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

54 / 200

54. Olanzapine is used in:

55 / 200

55. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

56 / 200

56. Family Planning benefits the father by:

57 / 200

57. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

58 / 200

58. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

59 / 200

59. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

60 / 200

60. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

61 / 200

61. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

62 / 200

62. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

63 / 200

63. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

64 / 200

64. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

65 / 200

65. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

66 / 200

66. One common complication of face presentation is:

67 / 200

67. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

68 / 200

68. Face presentation is caused by:

69 / 200

69. What describes a brow presentation?

70 / 200

70. Superfecundation refers to:

71 / 200

71. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

72 / 200

72. Essure works by:

73 / 200

73. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

74 / 200

74. Vaginal rings act by:

75 / 200

75. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

76 / 200

76. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

77 / 200

77. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

78 / 200

78. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

79 / 200

79. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

80 / 200

80. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

81 / 200

81. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

82 / 200

82. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

83 / 200

83. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

84 / 200

84. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

85 / 200

85. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

86 / 200

86. UTIs are commonly caused by:

87 / 200

87. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

88 / 200

88. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

89 / 200

89. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

90 / 200

90. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

91 / 200

91. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

92 / 200

92. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

93 / 200

93. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

94 / 200

94. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

95 / 200

95. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

96 / 200

96. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

97 / 200

97. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

98 / 200

98. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

99 / 200

99. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

100 / 200

100. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

101 / 200

101. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

102 / 200

102. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

103 / 200

103. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

104 / 200

104. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

105 / 200

105. Which term describes any fetal presentation other than vertex?

106 / 200

106. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

107 / 200

107. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

108 / 200

108. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

109 / 200

109. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

110 / 200

110. Which of the following is a malposition?

111 / 200

111. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

112 / 200

112. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

113 / 200

113. Adiana method combines:

114 / 200

114. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

115 / 200

115. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

116 / 200

116. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

117 / 200

117. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

118 / 200

118. Progering is suitable for:

119 / 200

119. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

120 / 200

120. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

121 / 200

121. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

122 / 200

122. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

123 / 200

123. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

124 / 200

124. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

125 / 200

125. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

126 / 200

126. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

127 / 200

127. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

128 / 200

128. A transverse lie is categorized under:

129 / 200

129. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

130 / 200

130. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

131 / 200

131. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

132 / 200

132. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

133 / 200

133. Yuzpe method involves:

134 / 200

134. Which of the following best describes CPD?

135 / 200

135. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

136 / 200

136. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

137 / 200

137. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

138 / 200

138. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

139 / 200

139. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

140 / 200

140. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

141 / 200

141. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

142 / 200

142. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

143 / 200

143. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

144 / 200

144. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

145 / 200

145. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

146 / 200

146. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

147 / 200

147. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

148 / 200

148. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

149 / 200

149. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

150 / 200

150. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

151 / 200

151. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

152 / 200

152. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

153 / 200

153. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

154 / 200

154. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

155 / 200

155. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

156 / 200

156. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

157 / 200

157. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

158 / 200

158. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

159 / 200

159. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

160 / 200

160. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

161 / 200

161. Main complaint with implants is:

162 / 200

162. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

163 / 200

163. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

164 / 200

164. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

165 / 200

165. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

166 / 200

166. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

167 / 200

167. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

168 / 200

168. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

169 / 200

169. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

170 / 200

170. The denominator in face presentation is:

171 / 200

171. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

172 / 200

172. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

173 / 200

173. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

174 / 200

174. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

175 / 200

175. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

176 / 200

176. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

177 / 200

177. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

178 / 200

178. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

179 / 200

179. Restitution is best described as:

180 / 200

180. Noristerat is given every:

181 / 200

181. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

182 / 200

182. Female condoms are made of:

183 / 200

183. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

184 / 200

184. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

185 / 200

185. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

186 / 200

186. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

187 / 200

187. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

188 / 200

188. One complication of unstable lie is:

189 / 200

189. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

190 / 200

190. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

191 / 200

191. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

192 / 200

192. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

193 / 200

193. Breech presentation is most common at:

194 / 200

194. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

195 / 200

195. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

196 / 200

196. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

197 / 200

197. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

198 / 200

198. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

199 / 200

199. Flat nipples are best managed by:

200 / 200

200. Implantation bleeding is due to:

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