Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

1. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

2. What is a key side effect of DMPA on bone health?

3. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

4. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

5. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

6. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

7. A symptom of IUFD includes:

8. Vaginal rings act by:

9. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

10. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

11. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

12. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

13. Which of the following is not a cause of prolonged pregnancy?

14. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

15. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

16. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

17. Cervical eversion is most likely caused by:

18. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

19. The head is born by which movement?

20. Restitution is best described as:

21. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

22. A diagnostic sign of OP position on abdominal exam is:

23. Implanon is a:

24. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

25. Trichomoniasis is caused by:

26. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

27. Major cardiovascular risk of COC includes:

28. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

29. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

30. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

31. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

32. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

33. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

34. A common investigation in hyperemesis is:

35. One common complication of face presentation is:

36. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

37. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

38. UTIs are commonly caused by:

39. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

40. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

41. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

42. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

43. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

44. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

45. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

46. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

47. Family Planning benefits the father by:

48. Which condition is protective against breast cancer?

49. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

50. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

51. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

52. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

53. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

54. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

55. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

56. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

57. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

58. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

59. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

60. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

61. A community benefits from FP through:

62. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

63. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

64. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

65. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

66. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

67. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

68. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

69. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

70. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

71. Which of the following is a female permanent method?

72. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

73. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

74. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

75. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

76. During internal rotation in LOA, the occiput rotates:

77. Quinacrine induces sterilization via:

78. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

79. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

80. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

81. Best treatment for trichomoniasis:

82. The arcuate line separates the:

83. What indicates successful OP rotation?

84. Adiana method combines:

85. Nonoxynol-9 is:

86. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

87. Reassurance, rest, and fluid intake are nursing priorities for:

88. A complication of untreated UTI in pregnancy is:

89. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

90. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

91. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

92. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

93. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

94. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

95. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

96. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

97. Total fertility rate refers to:

98. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

99. A typical post-mature baby may show:

100. What describes a brow presentation?

101. The most common malposition during labor is:

102. Breech presentation is most common at:

103. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

104. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

105. Brow presentation is usually managed by:

106. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

107. The denominator in face presentation is:

108. Essure works by:

109. Which drug is safe in asthma management during pregnancy?

110. Crowning occurs when:

111. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

112. Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with:

113. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

114. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

115. LAM is effective only when:

116. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

117. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

118. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

119. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

120. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

121. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

122. Cardiac disease during pregnancy increases the risk of:

123. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

124. Progering is suitable for:

125. Which of the following lies is associated with shoulder presentation?

126. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

127. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

128. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

129. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

130. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

131. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

132. Which respiratory condition involves airway inflammation?

133. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

134. Frameless IUCDs are designed to:

135. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

136. Contraception is best defined as:

137. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

138. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

139. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

140. Noristerat is given every:

141. Congenital TB can result if:

142. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

143. Which of the following is a malposition?

144. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

145. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

146. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

147. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

148. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

149. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

150. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

151. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

152. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

153. Management of transverse lie in labor is primarily:

154. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

155. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

156. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

157. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

158. Main complaint with implants is:

159. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

160. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

161. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

162. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

163. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

164. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

165. Superfecundation refers to:

166. Which is commonly auscultated in OP position?

167. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

168. Depo-Provera is administered:

169. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

170. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

171. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

172. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

173. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

174. Neonatal gonorrhea infection often affects:

175. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

176. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

177. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

178. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

179. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

180. Best prevention of diabetic complications in pregnancy:

181. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

182. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

183. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

184. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

185. Olanzapine is used in:

186. Flat nipples are best managed by:

187. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

188. Partner treatment is essential in:

189. Yuzpe method involves:

190. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

191. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

192. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

193. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

194. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

195. A transverse lie is categorized under:

196. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

197. One complication of unstable lie is:

198. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

199. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

200. Mirena releases: