Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

General Quizzes

Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

/200
7

Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Quiz 2, curated from various interesting topics in MCH

Please enter with a valid email address, and try using fullscreen mode when taking the test. Answers show immediately after you select an option.

This test has 228 questions in its bank, but only 200 random questions will be served at each test.

Enjoy!

Let’s get to know you first

1 / 200

1. Which is NOT a fetal cause of polyhydramnios?

2 / 200

2. Risk of prolonged pregnancy includes all except:

3 / 200

3. The method to confirm presentation during labor is:

4 / 200

4. One common complication of face presentation is:

5 / 200

5. Which condition involves pus accumulation in the breast?

6 / 200

6. The position that most favours vaginal delivery is:

7 / 200

7. Family Planning benefits the father by:

8 / 200

8. In frank breech, the fetal legs are:

9 / 200

9. A complication of retroverted gravid uterus is:

10 / 200

10. During assisted breech delivery, which maneuver is used for arm delivery?

11 / 200

11. Nonoxynol-9 is:

12 / 200

12. Which method is used to turn breech to cephalic presentation before labor?

13 / 200

13. The cause of brow presentation may include all EXCEPT:

14 / 200

14. Main prevention strategy for GI disorders in pregnancy is:

15 / 200

15. Breech presentation is most common at:

16 / 200

16. Best prevention for asthma complications during pregnancy:

17 / 200

17. One danger of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is:

18 / 200

18. The denominator in face presentation is:

19 / 200

19. A community benefits from FP through:

20 / 200

20. Gastrointestinal infections like cholera primarily cause:

21 / 200

21. In brow presentation, vaginal delivery is:

22 / 200

22. A typical symptom of face presentation during VE is:

23 / 200

23. Crowning occurs when:

24 / 200

24. DOTS strategy in TB treatment stands for:

25 / 200

25. IUCDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:

26 / 200

26. Post-term pregnancy refers to pregnancy beyond:

27 / 200

27. Implanon is a:

28 / 200

28. What proportion of Nigerian population is under age 15?

29 / 200

29. Main reason for underuse of FP methods in Nigeria is:

30 / 200

30. Primary treatment for syphilis in pregnancy:

31 / 200

31. A confirmed case of acute polyhydramnios is managed with:

32 / 200

32. Superfecundation refers to:

33 / 200

33. Sickle cell crisis can be triggered by all EXCEPT:

34 / 200

34. A complication of anemia in pregnancy includes:

35 / 200

35. Why is nonoxynol-9 contraindicated in HIV patients?

36 / 200

36. Noristerat is given every:

37 / 200

37. Gestational hypertension is defined as:

38 / 200

38. A deep transverse arrest occurs when:

39 / 200

39. Herpes genitalis poses highest risk when:

40 / 200

40. What indicates successful OP rotation?

41 / 200

41. Contraception is best defined as:

42 / 200

42. Oligohydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid less than:

43 / 200

43. What is a common cause of sore nipples during breastfeeding?

44 / 200

44. Which part is used to determine fetal position in vertex presentation?

45 / 200

45. Which shoulder usually escapes under the symphysis pubis?

46 / 200

46. Which of the following is NOT a modern FP method?

47 / 200

47. Shoulder presentation is associated with:

48 / 200

48. Which fontanel is triangular in shape?

49 / 200

49. The anatomical conjugate is measured from:

50 / 200

50. Congenital TB can result if:

51 / 200

51. Which maneuver is used for after-coming head with extended legs?

52 / 200

52. The most effective emergency contraceptive window is within:

53 / 200

53. First-line nursing management for cholera includes:

54 / 200

54. Tuberculosis in pregnancy may cause:

55 / 200

55. First-line management of severe eclampsia includes:

56 / 200

56. Chronic nephritis is defined as:

57 / 200

57. Genetic counseling is especially important in:

58 / 200

58. Complication of post-term pregnancy includes all except:

59 / 200

59. Which method is ideal for lactating mothers?

60 / 200

60. Which of the following is NOT a high-risk birth indicator?

61 / 200

61. In OP labor, anterior fontanelle may be:

62 / 200

62. A major maternal complication of malpresentation is:

63 / 200

63. WHO defines family planning as a way of life based on:

64 / 200

64. Which diameter lies between ischial spines?

65 / 200

65. Which hormone-only pill can be taken 12 hours late without reduced efficacy?

66 / 200

66. Yasmin pill helps reduce:

67 / 200

67. Which of the following is a malposition?

68 / 200

68. Flat nipples are best managed by:

69 / 200

69. The Calendar method’s perfect use failure rate is:

70 / 200

70. Natural methods are least preferred due to:

71 / 200

71. Compound presentation is defined as presentation of the head with:

72 / 200

72. The head is born by which movement?

73 / 200

73. Retroverted gravid uterus is typically corrected by:

74 / 200

74. Which of the following leads to face presentation?

75 / 200

75. Which fetal presentation has the face as the presenting part?

76 / 200

76. In vertex presentation, the position is described using the direction of the:

77 / 200

77. Best prevention for preeclampsia in high-risk women:

78 / 200

78. A reliable method to assess for CPD is:

79 / 200

79. Pulmonary edema in pregnant cardiac patients results from:

80 / 200

80. The advantage of Sympto-thermal method is:

81 / 200

81. What is the typical engaging diameter in a brow presentation?

82 / 200

82. Which male sterilization method is non-surgical?

83 / 200

83. A hallmark of eclampsia is:

84 / 200

84. Restitution is best described as:

85 / 200

85. Which type of breech has the highest risk of cord prolapse?

86 / 200

86. The pelvic cavity is approximately:

87 / 200

87. Which vaccine is NOT aimed at implantation prevention?

88 / 200

88. Which of the following is considered a traditional method of family planning?

89 / 200

89. Partner treatment is essential in:

90 / 200

90. The best time to assess for CPD in pregnancy is at:

91 / 200

91. Safe antibiotic for chlamydia in pregnancy:

92 / 200

92. The presenting part in complete breech is typically:

93 / 200

93. Which mental disorder may require antipsychotic meds during pregnancy?

94 / 200

94. In frank breech presentation, the fetal thighs are flexed and the legs are:

95 / 200

95. Seasonale is a continuous-use pill taken for how long?

96 / 200

96. Vaginal rings act by:

97 / 200

97. Which pelvic abnormality is characterized by a reduced diameter of one or more pelvic dimensions?

98 / 200

98. Main prevention strategy for malaria:

99 / 200

99. What is the primary reason surgical induction is avoided in IUFD?

100 / 200

100. Which method involves observing cervical mucus?

101 / 200

101. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of mastitis?

102 / 200

102. The sacral promontory is found on which pelvic structure?

103 / 200

103. Malaria during pregnancy can lead to all EXCEPT:

104 / 200

104. LAM is effective only when:

105 / 200

105. For a method to be ideal, it must be all EXCEPT:

106 / 200

106. A symptom of IUFD includes:

107 / 200

107. Which lie is considered unstable after 36 weeks?

108 / 200

108. Diabetes in pregnancy may cause:

109 / 200

109. Which pelvis type is due to a deficiency of vitamin D during development?

110 / 200

110. Total fertility rate refers to:

111 / 200

111. Thyroid disorders affect pregnancy by:

112 / 200

112. Which of the following is a gestational cause of bleeding in early pregnancy?

113 / 200

113. Which of these diameters is used clinically to estimate the obstetric conjugate?

114 / 200

114. A common complication of oligohydramnios is:

115 / 200

115. Which of the following best describes CPD?

116 / 200

116. What drug is commonly used in hyperemesis treatment?

117 / 200

117. A transverse lie is categorized under:

118 / 200

118. A major risk in untreated psychosis is:

119 / 200

119. Which is an advantage of traditional FP methods?

120 / 200

120. Which is a benefit of FP to the mother?

121 / 200

121. Which is a dangerous progression of pre-eclampsia?

122 / 200

122. A complication of prolonged OP labor includes:

123 / 200

123. The term for manually correcting a retroverted uterus is:

124 / 200

124. A minor degree of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is identified when:

125 / 200

125. Progering is suitable for:

126 / 200

126. The shortest AP diameter of the pelvic inlet used in obstetrics is the:

127 / 200

127. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy requires:

128 / 200

128. Which movement brings about birth of the body?

129 / 200

129. Spalding’s sign is characterized by:

130 / 200

130. A key symptom during labor in OP position is:

131 / 200

131. The widest diameter of the pelvic inlet is:

132 / 200

132. UTIs are commonly caused by:

133 / 200

133. Adiana method combines:

134 / 200

134. Chlamydia in neonates commonly causes:

135 / 200

135. Which type of twins result from two separate ova and sperm?

136 / 200

136. Asthma in pregnancy increases the risk of:

137 / 200

137. Symptoms of incarceration due to retroversion include:

138 / 200

138. Which of the following is least favourable for vaginal delivery?

139 / 200

139. Vertical transmission of HIV can occur through all EXCEPT:

140 / 200

140. In LOA position, what is the denominator?

141 / 200

141. A cause of shoulder presentation is:

142 / 200

142. What describes a brow presentation?

143 / 200

143. Magnesium sulfate is used in pre-eclampsia to prevent:

144 / 200

144. When sinciput rotates and is born under the symphysis pubis, it is called:

145 / 200

145. Which of the following is a common neonatal complication of breech delivery?

146 / 200

146. Oligohydramnios is best managed with:

147 / 200

147. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical cancer?

148 / 200

148. Depo-Provera is administered:

149 / 200

149. Superimposed pre-eclampsia is seen in patients with:

150 / 200

150. A typical sign of CPD during labour includes:

151 / 200

151. Olanzapine is used in:

152 / 200

152. A rare finding on VE in brow presentation is:

153 / 200

153. Common cause of congenital syphilis:

154 / 200

154. The most common malposition during labor is:

155 / 200

155. What is the presenting part in vertex presentation?

156 / 200

156. In OP position, fetal descent is often slow because of:

157 / 200

157. What is the risk of using force in breech delivery of the head?

158 / 200

158. Yuzpe method involves:

159 / 200

159. Which of the following can cause CPD due to fetal factors?

160 / 200

160. The engaging diameter in vertex presentation is:

161 / 200

161. Copper IUCD CuT-380A lasts for:

162 / 200

162. Pre-eclampsia includes all EXCEPT:

163 / 200

163. The diameter used to assess shoulder engagement is:

164 / 200

164. One major risk of polyhydramnios during labor is:

165 / 200

165. A neurological complication of hyperemesis gravidarum is:

166 / 200

166. Normal Hb level in pregnancy should be at least:

167 / 200

167. Which of the following is NOT found in combined pills?

168 / 200

168. In unstable lie, the preferred delivery plan is:

169 / 200

169. What is the engaging diameter in face presentation?

170 / 200

170. Face presentation is caused by:

171 / 200

171. Burn’s Marshall method is used to:

172 / 200

172. A contraindication for external cephalic version is:

173 / 200

173. Which of these is not part of the mechanism of labour in LOA?

174 / 200

174. Cord prolapse is a common complication of:

175 / 200

175. Fetal attitude refers to the relationship of:

176 / 200

176. Female condoms are made of:

177 / 200

177. One complication of unstable lie is:

178 / 200

178. Which diameter of the fetal skull engages in well-flexed vertex presentation?

179 / 200

179. Failure of internal rotation would most likely result in:

180 / 200

180. Implantation bleeding is due to:

181 / 200

181. Which of the following is the denominator in breech presentation?

182 / 200

182. In shoulder presentation, a prolapsed part is most likely to be:

183 / 200

183. In face presentation, the engaging diameter is:

184 / 200

184. Essure works by:

185 / 200

185. The anterior midline joint of the pelvis is the:

186 / 200

186. Mirena releases:

187 / 200

187. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when AFI exceeds:

188 / 200

188. WHO allows IUCD use in women with HIV if:

189 / 200

189. Unmet need for contraception is highest among:

190 / 200

190. Common symptom of psychosis in pregnancy:

191 / 200

191. Which is a major maternal complication of multiple gestation?

192 / 200

192. The presenting diameter in brow presentation is:

193 / 200

193. Which presentation is most likely to result from an oblique lie?

194 / 200

194. What is the average number of children per woman in Nigeria according to NDHS 1999?

195 / 200

195. Family Planning helps improve all EXCEPT:

196 / 200

196. Which symptom suggests worsening preeclampsia?

197 / 200

197. Main complaint with implants is:

198 / 200

198. Which face presentation position has the worst prognosis?

199 / 200

199. Which of these is a known risk factor for abnormal lies?

200 / 200

200. Primary cause of tuberculosis:

Your score is

Please click the stars to rate the quiz

Thank you for your rating, we are glad and are committed to making more improvements

Comment (1)

  1. Moyo

    No

Leave a Reply to Moyo Cancel reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Discover more from Study Companion

Subscribe now to keep reading and get access to the full archive.

Continue reading